A 42-year-old man develops restlessness and tactile/visual hallucinations two days after surgery. The most likely diagnosis is alcoholic hallucinosis, and the recommended treatment is a long-acting benzodiazepine. Which option best reflects this management?

• A. Delirium tremens complex requiring restraints
• B. Primary psychosis unrelated to alcohol
• C. Alcoholic hallucinosis treated with a long-acting benzodiazepine
• D. Methanol poisoning mimicking psychosis

Answer: (C)